I have a relative that will never be in a position to own her own home. She has health issues and has been unable to work for the past number of years. She is currently in rental accommodation since her mum died but it's awful, badly heated and mouldy. She is on the council housing list for the last 6 years also.
I'm in a position where I can buy a small 2up/2 down townhouse outright and while I could conceivably rent it to her, I would prefer to put her name on the deeds on purchasing. This way, when I die she will always at least have a home. Even if I didn't put her on the deeds I intend to bequeath her the house when I die, but that would leave her with a large bill for inheritance tax and put her home in jeopardy if she doesn't have substantial savings to pay the taxation due. She's my niece so would fall into group B.
What is the tax implication, if any, of including her on the deeds of the house? She could pay me a small rent or even let out a room to pay back her half of the purchase price and I would pay tax on that payment. I know if I acted as a bank and loaned her the money I would have to charge interest, otherwise it would be considered a gift, but if I was a co owner on the deeds I'm not sure what my liabilty would be.
Any advice appreciated, I'll be asking my accountant as well, and if it all goes ahead I'll be getting a contract drawn up with my solicitor to protect both parties interests.
I'm in a position where I can buy a small 2up/2 down townhouse outright and while I could conceivably rent it to her, I would prefer to put her name on the deeds on purchasing. This way, when I die she will always at least have a home. Even if I didn't put her on the deeds I intend to bequeath her the house when I die, but that would leave her with a large bill for inheritance tax and put her home in jeopardy if she doesn't have substantial savings to pay the taxation due. She's my niece so would fall into group B.
What is the tax implication, if any, of including her on the deeds of the house? She could pay me a small rent or even let out a room to pay back her half of the purchase price and I would pay tax on that payment. I know if I acted as a bank and loaned her the money I would have to charge interest, otherwise it would be considered a gift, but if I was a co owner on the deeds I'm not sure what my liabilty would be.
Any advice appreciated, I'll be asking my accountant as well, and if it all goes ahead I'll be getting a contract drawn up with my solicitor to protect both parties interests.