Hi there
We surrendered a buy to let property in negative equity to the bank circa 2010.
The property was never sold and we can see from a land registry search that we are still the legal owners.
We have not had correspondence from the bank in many years until the end of last year when we received a letter from an asset servicing firm to say they had taken over servicing the loan on behalf of the original lender. We have since received a few letters reminding us that the mortgage is in arrears and asking us to contact them to discuss a proposal.
The asset servicing firm have not bought the loan and the letter clearly states it is still with the original lender. The charge registered on the land registry folio confirms this - ie this charge is still in favour of the original bank lender. The letter also suggests that no receiver is in place.
We are now in a position to engage with a view to clearing the arrears and closing the mortgage, ideally through a sale of the property. The property is nearly worth the value of the mortgage and if there is a shortfall we will engage with the bank to address this.
My question is do you think the bank would, after all this time, agree to us selling the property and managing the sale process ourselves? Alternatively what is the likelihood of getting them to move ahead with selling the property? Is it possible they do not have a power of sale because they have not sold the property yet?
Also we are fairly certain the property has been let the entire time since the surrender. Would the bank have been collecting the rent - is that something they do?
We surrendered a buy to let property in negative equity to the bank circa 2010.
The property was never sold and we can see from a land registry search that we are still the legal owners.
We have not had correspondence from the bank in many years until the end of last year when we received a letter from an asset servicing firm to say they had taken over servicing the loan on behalf of the original lender. We have since received a few letters reminding us that the mortgage is in arrears and asking us to contact them to discuss a proposal.
The asset servicing firm have not bought the loan and the letter clearly states it is still with the original lender. The charge registered on the land registry folio confirms this - ie this charge is still in favour of the original bank lender. The letter also suggests that no receiver is in place.
We are now in a position to engage with a view to clearing the arrears and closing the mortgage, ideally through a sale of the property. The property is nearly worth the value of the mortgage and if there is a shortfall we will engage with the bank to address this.
My question is do you think the bank would, after all this time, agree to us selling the property and managing the sale process ourselves? Alternatively what is the likelihood of getting them to move ahead with selling the property? Is it possible they do not have a power of sale because they have not sold the property yet?
Also we are fairly certain the property has been let the entire time since the surrender. Would the bank have been collecting the rent - is that something they do?