BrixnMortar
Registered User
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- 11
I bought a house with my sister 3 years ago. I was out of the country at the time, so my name went on the mortgage, but NOT the title deeds. I've been paying the mortgage but now I want to get my name on the title deeds and am trying to do it without exposing myself to CGT.
House when bought 270k. Value Now 370k. Gain 100k I suppose.
Is there a way I can show the revenue that in substance I 50% own the house and always intended to be on the deeds. My 'trainee' solicitor reckons it would be treated as a chargeable transfer of half of the market value of the property (i.e. 185,000 less the 40k sibling exemption), therefore tax liable of 20% on 185k minus 40k, about 28 grand. I have NO intention of paying tax on something, when there is no transfer in substance (only legal form) - its just a question of putting my name officially on the deeds. I believe that the consideration being paid (as I'm on the mortgage deeds) is the same as the market value. Am I wrong?
Could anyone give me a pointer on how to progress this tax efficiently?
House when bought 270k. Value Now 370k. Gain 100k I suppose.
Is there a way I can show the revenue that in substance I 50% own the house and always intended to be on the deeds. My 'trainee' solicitor reckons it would be treated as a chargeable transfer of half of the market value of the property (i.e. 185,000 less the 40k sibling exemption), therefore tax liable of 20% on 185k minus 40k, about 28 grand. I have NO intention of paying tax on something, when there is no transfer in substance (only legal form) - its just a question of putting my name officially on the deeds. I believe that the consideration being paid (as I'm on the mortgage deeds) is the same as the market value. Am I wrong?
Could anyone give me a pointer on how to progress this tax efficiently?