Hi, sorry if this is in the wrong forum, but wanted advice from a legal head.
Here's the story:
A friend of mine jointly owned a property (which he bought with his gf, both first time buyers at the time) and that house has since been sold as they have gone their separate ways.
My friend's father (mother deceased) is now signing over the family home to him, along with two acres of land (used for farming, no P.P. for sites). The house would be a standard bungalow in a rural area, probably worth under the 200k mark at this stage.
Is my friend liable for Stamp Duty (or any other tax), and if so, how is it calculated?
Thanks