I was talking to a friend in work today - I came away from the conversation feeling very uncomfortable about what I think could be a major problem looking for my friend. In summary her parents opted for equity release about 5 years ago to free up about €120,000 on the €600,000 property (20% LTV). Shortly afterwards her father died and she lives with her mother in the house with 1 sibling who is married and lives elsehwere.
I'm not entirely sure how these schemes work so I'm hoping someone can correct me or validate my assumptions. The first is that the financial institution charges a rate of interest on the amount borrowed, ie. €120k @ say 6% p.a. = €214, 902 after 10 years.... is that a reasonable assumption?
Then, say the house after 10 years is worth say €500k (which is probably best case the way things have gone), and the mother passes away. Whereas the current scenario would have givien both siblings 40% each or 240k each (€600k-€120)=€480k. Now the likely scenario would be after 10 years (500k-215k), so they would have 28% each or 142k (500k-215k)=€285k.
I'd be grateful if someone could validate the assumptions above or correct me if I'm wrong. I seem to recall that these schemes were sold on the basis that if house prices kept rising the institution cleaned up by owning (in this case) 20% of a rising asset. However in a falling market I can't imagine the institution acception their 20% share drops in line with the market - is this correct?
Any advice would be appreciated because I would like to be able to provide some factual advice to my friend as I think she potentially has a major problem coming down the road.
Roy
I'm not entirely sure how these schemes work so I'm hoping someone can correct me or validate my assumptions. The first is that the financial institution charges a rate of interest on the amount borrowed, ie. €120k @ say 6% p.a. = €214, 902 after 10 years.... is that a reasonable assumption?
Then, say the house after 10 years is worth say €500k (which is probably best case the way things have gone), and the mother passes away. Whereas the current scenario would have givien both siblings 40% each or 240k each (€600k-€120)=€480k. Now the likely scenario would be after 10 years (500k-215k), so they would have 28% each or 142k (500k-215k)=€285k.
I'd be grateful if someone could validate the assumptions above or correct me if I'm wrong. I seem to recall that these schemes were sold on the basis that if house prices kept rising the institution cleaned up by owning (in this case) 20% of a rising asset. However in a falling market I can't imagine the institution acception their 20% share drops in line with the market - is this correct?
Any advice would be appreciated because I would like to be able to provide some factual advice to my friend as I think she potentially has a major problem coming down the road.
Roy