Sole Trader - Entitlement to JA

I've read up plenty on this now and previously thought I was not entitled to anything due to being self employed. I have now read though that I may be entitled to JA due to the practically non existence of work for me (I am a tradesman). I know that my wife's income will be assessed but her only income is rental from a UK property. The property is solely in her name.

Does the means test take the market valuation of the property into account (I know it does if the property is in my name but as I said the property is in her name only) or is it based on the rental income seeing as it is her income? Based on this I can calculate the likelihood of me gettting a payment.

Thanks to anyone who can help.

Property which you (or your partner) own and do not live in is assessed at the full capital value of the property. If you go on to the welfare website and look at the Operational Guideance notes on Means Assessment it explains it there.

Yes I have read that and it keeps referring to the owner of the property or if the accounts are joint. As I said the property is in my wifes name only and she derives an income from it. Surely just the income should be taken into account as she has the say on what happens to the property.

It doesn't matter that its in your wife's name, as your wife's means and yours are assessed together. If either of you were still living in the property and also deriving an income from it, then the income would be assessed rather than the capital value. If neither of you are living in it, then it is to be assessed at the capital value. That's my understanding anyway.