Not as far as I know. The broker said it wasn't. It was only my solicitor "acting in my best interest". We already had a Mediation Agreement, but I doubt that was the reason because it's not a legal document (?).Was it a condition of the mortgage that they be completed? I'd imagine it would easy enough get a loan offer but there should be a condition on a loan offer to be completed before drawdown. Would only apply to a family home and not a buy to let.
no existing properties. solely a house buying question.Do they have children? If so, courts would likely give the house to her to mind the kids, and he'd be the one that needs to find a house...
that was what I thought the reason was alright.In my experience..............
If a married couple separate, and have no formal agreement or Court order in place, then, if one wants to buy a property and needs to finance that with a mortgage, a lender won't lend unless and until there is a formal agreement in place.
Without that , there is scope, e.g., for a maintenance application which could affect the repayment capacity of the borrower.
mf
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