Are there any potential spillover effects for Europe from this?
Indirect contagion perhaps.Are there any potential spillover effects for Europe from this?
I still don't understand why more than half of the liability side was non-interest bearing demand deposits. What was so appealing about zero interest rates in SVB at a time when interest rates are in general positive?.the only credible explanation I've seen is either incompetence or SVIB required such cash balances to be held there as part of lending/lines of credit they provided to those tech firms.
Absolutely. Government-supported high roller gambling!I agree.......these were sophisticated depositors....who understand counterparty risk.....and that deposits over $250k in any US bank become unsecured liabilities to that institution.....the only credible explanation I've seen is either incompetence or SVIB required such cash balances to be held there as part of lending/lines of credit they provided to those tech firms.
If so those firms took a risk with their cash for which they received rewards on the lending side rates/duration. In lots of respects they became effective bond holders in their corporate banking provider. They've got away with murder in this instance but they shouldn't the next time.........because there will always be a next time.
I still don't understand why more than half of the liability side was non-interest bearing demand deposits. What was so appealing about zero interest rates in SVB at a time when interest rates are in general positive?
It looks like a Quinn-style levy on the banks for years to come.
I'm not a moral hazard monster, but surely a CFO of a tech firm who parked all $30m of reserves in one bank should be punished with a haircut of 2% or 3%.
But if they did not have excessive deposits they would not have had to look for a risky home for them.
Indirect contagion perhaps.
But EU banks generally don't have the kind of concentrated depositor base that SVB does.
What does this mean?In addition, my rudimentary understanding of the supervision rules are that the unrealised losses that SVB were realising, are already built into CET1 capital, so Euro banks generally have better liquidity and capital ratios.
What does this mean?
Are you saying that euro banks like the Irish banks are writing down the value of their government bond portfolio to market values rather than face value as their prices fell?
Joe, help me here. What regulation exactly requires banks to hold unhedged, long dated, fixed rate Government bonds?The repercussions from all this is that the banks will want to reduce down their government bond portfolio and could start Lobbying the regulators to reduce the requirements to hold so much government bonds since they have now proven to be far from safe assets in a rising interest rate environment
Nobody is saying they were the sole cause of this , Obviously the banks own mismanagement was key. However the issue of banks needing to hold government bonds as part of their liquidity and the overvaluation of those bonds driven by the world's central banks for years cannot be ignored as a major contributory factor.But to say that government bonds was the sole cause of this is an oversimplification.
Indeed what are deemed "high-quality, liquid assets" are used by supervisors to calculate ratios of much banks have to hand if there are a lot of deposit outflows.They are meant to be easily sellable so banks can realise funds quickly.
everyone will look for their money back at once.
It's what happened in the UK with the LDI debacle.Will the central banks now have to become buyer of those bonds at full value to backstop the banks if they need to sell?
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