I am asking this on behalf of a friend.
His wife had a large inheritance left to her and it was placed into her personal account.
They were going to a difficult period and she did not offer to use any of the money for the children etc. She spent it all on herself and also accrued an extra 20k in debt after.
He later heard that he should have been informed and that he was entitled to half because he is her husband.
Is this true?
Thanks in advance.
His wife had a large inheritance left to her and it was placed into her personal account.
They were going to a difficult period and she did not offer to use any of the money for the children etc. She spent it all on herself and also accrued an extra 20k in debt after.
He later heard that he should have been informed and that he was entitled to half because he is her husband.
Is this true?
Thanks in advance.