Hi,
We are selling a property that is in negative equity.
There is about 14,000 euro difference between what we are getting and what we owe the bank.
Much better than last year incidentally when a valuation put us in about 70,000 neg eq......
(Valuation is a total mirage, just on that issue an identical apartment went with same view/floor size etc went on the market the month before us and got 42,000 less than ours - the only difference was ours looked nice aesthetically and the other one didn't!!).
Anyway, my question is, the solicitor has told us we will pay the difference into their client account.
But say we pay that 14,000 over to the solicitor next week, but we are continuing to pay the mortgage as normal - won't we end up overpaying the bank a little?
Wouldn't it be better to pay the bank the 14,000 and reduce our repayments accordingly over the next 4 weeks until we finish the transaction.
The solicitor just says to transfer it to them.
I am not mathematically minded, in the slightest, so perhaps I am totally misfiring here. But I have niggle that by paying the 14,000 now to the solicitor rather than to the bank will result in us paying too much to the bank, in interest at least.
Could someone help me see the situation correctly/clearly.
Thank you!
We are selling a property that is in negative equity.
There is about 14,000 euro difference between what we are getting and what we owe the bank.
Much better than last year incidentally when a valuation put us in about 70,000 neg eq......
(Valuation is a total mirage, just on that issue an identical apartment went with same view/floor size etc went on the market the month before us and got 42,000 less than ours - the only difference was ours looked nice aesthetically and the other one didn't!!).
Anyway, my question is, the solicitor has told us we will pay the difference into their client account.
But say we pay that 14,000 over to the solicitor next week, but we are continuing to pay the mortgage as normal - won't we end up overpaying the bank a little?
Wouldn't it be better to pay the bank the 14,000 and reduce our repayments accordingly over the next 4 weeks until we finish the transaction.
The solicitor just says to transfer it to them.
I am not mathematically minded, in the slightest, so perhaps I am totally misfiring here. But I have niggle that by paying the 14,000 now to the solicitor rather than to the bank will result in us paying too much to the bank, in interest at least.
Could someone help me see the situation correctly/clearly.
Thank you!