My husband has been self employed since 1990. He has been mostly on hire solely to the same company for at least the last 15 yrs. Its looking like he may be laid off in the near future. would he be entitled to any form of redundancy at all??
You meniton your husband was on hire to the company. There is no entitlement to redundancy if he has not been an employee of the company - i.e. if he was self employed. Although I have seen companies previously giving such providers ex gratia payments in recognition of their service - however there would be no entitlement to these.
emm that is what I though. however, it was mentioned to us recently that as this has been his sole income for the best part of 20yrs?? that he should be entitled to some payment from the company