Nearly true - just one slight clarification - it is actually the final year of ownership of a house which is automatically deemed to be non-rental, regardless of whether it is actually rented or not. So you get a years grace, provided that your rental was the final 12 months of ownership.mobilegirl said:I was enquiring about this recently to the tax office as am considering renting my existing home when I purchase my new home. I believe you are allowed a year's grace on the CGT, i.e. you can rent the property for a year without being liable to CGT - is this true?
See this thread which goes into that issue in some detail.mobilegirl said:My current property has a value of 235k, outstanding loan of 45k - the property has increased by 85k since I purchased it in 2002. Would I be crazy to rent this property when I can come away with 85k tax-free profit (the only tax-free money I will ever make, somebody told me recently!)
If you rent a property originally bought as an owner occupier PPR (principal private residence) within five years of purchase then the clawback of stamp duty applies.mobilegirl said:I could rent for the next 12 months and then sell, but then I could be exposed to clawback of stamp duty (even though I bought the property as an FTB?)
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