Does anyone know why (apart from the fact that someone in the Department of Finance thought it would be a good way to limit uptake) you have to forego part of your salary in order to avail of tax breaks on commuter tickets ?
I don't mean you have to forego salary by paying for it (that is taken for granted), but I mean is that you have to reduce your reckonable income or some other significant tax term.
Assume I am on €50,000 and my taxsaver ticket costs €1,000. From a P60 point of view I will have earned €49,000. I have foregone 2% of my salary. Big deal, some people might say. My concern is that a number of things are based on this reduced salary level - like pension contributions, bonuses, etc . . .
1% or 2% of salary might not seem like a lot, but I am a little concerned that the cumulative effect over the next 30 years to retirement *could* be significant.
So, as above, does anyone know why this particular method was chosen by Finance/Revenue and does anyone have a view as to whether the cumulative effects on things like pension provision might be significant over time ?
Cheers,
z
I don't mean you have to forego salary by paying for it (that is taken for granted), but I mean is that you have to reduce your reckonable income or some other significant tax term.
Assume I am on €50,000 and my taxsaver ticket costs €1,000. From a P60 point of view I will have earned €49,000. I have foregone 2% of my salary. Big deal, some people might say. My concern is that a number of things are based on this reduced salary level - like pension contributions, bonuses, etc . . .
1% or 2% of salary might not seem like a lot, but I am a little concerned that the cumulative effect over the next 30 years to retirement *could* be significant.
So, as above, does anyone know why this particular method was chosen by Finance/Revenue and does anyone have a view as to whether the cumulative effects on things like pension provision might be significant over time ?
Cheers,
z