Hi all,
Hopefully someone can shed some light on this subject.
I bought a house, and was liable to the first time buyers grant, so paid no stamp duty. I have been living in the house for the past 1year 4months. The problem is that now due to work I have to move out of the county where I bought the house, and to the otherside of the country.
I understand that if I rented the house, I would be liable for stamp duty clawback. I've done some research and understand that I have to have the house as my primary residence for 2 years before renting in order to avoid the stamp duty clawback.
My question is, due to the fact for work I need to move, is there a loop hole where the government will allow rental of the house in situations where its not physically possible to occupy the house?
Any advise is much appreciated.
Thanks
Hopefully someone can shed some light on this subject.
I bought a house, and was liable to the first time buyers grant, so paid no stamp duty. I have been living in the house for the past 1year 4months. The problem is that now due to work I have to move out of the county where I bought the house, and to the otherside of the country.
I understand that if I rented the house, I would be liable for stamp duty clawback. I've done some research and understand that I have to have the house as my primary residence for 2 years before renting in order to avoid the stamp duty clawback.
My question is, due to the fact for work I need to move, is there a loop hole where the government will allow rental of the house in situations where its not physically possible to occupy the house?
Any advise is much appreciated.
Thanks