Hello All
Here's a question for the tax experts! A friend of a friend has a foreign property that he rents out. He acquired the purchase finance by re-mortgaging his home and getting an interest only mortgage/loan. The rental income doesn't cover the interest repayments and property expenses, so for the last three years he has been out of pocket. However! his financial advisers (Corn?) have organised it so that his financial loss becomes a tax credit with regard to his paye income and has received a tax return cheque in the post for the last two tax returns. Sorry for about the inaccuracies in the terminology and before anyone asks for more info, I haven't any as yet. What I do know is that it doesn't sound right? OR is it? Any ideas?