settlement
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I understand that we can rent out a room of our PPR for 1300 a month tax free which seems like a good deal.
However, is it possible that it can come against us financially in the long run?
Eg, purchase 2 bedroom house for 600k.
Home appreciates 4 % per year (just an average for sake of argument)
In 30 years, this home will therefore be worth 1.946 million.
We then sell it and make a profit of 1.346, which is not subject to capital gains as we did not rent a room.
scenario 2
rent a room
1300 x 12 months x 30 years, with inflation 4% = 925k profit
we then go to sell the house at 1.946 million, with a profit of 1.346 million
however, half of this profit is due to cgt (1 out of 2 bedrooms?) = 673k profit
this is added to the profit from renting of 925k = total of 1.598 million profit
Scenario 2 is more profitable but not by a huge amount.
i understand this may be based on incorrect assumptions.
1. You are unlikely to rent out a room for the entirety of the ownership
2. Does renting 1 out of 2 bedrooms mean half the house was only used as a home? What if 1 out of 2 bedrooms is rented but the other bedroom holds 2 people, eg a couple, is it still 50% of the house not used as a home? Or 33%?
3. I have not done the maths on how this would work with renting multiple rooms etc - does anyone know how this would work out mathematically
However, is it possible that it can come against us financially in the long run?
Eg, purchase 2 bedroom house for 600k.
Home appreciates 4 % per year (just an average for sake of argument)
In 30 years, this home will therefore be worth 1.946 million.
We then sell it and make a profit of 1.346, which is not subject to capital gains as we did not rent a room.
scenario 2
rent a room
1300 x 12 months x 30 years, with inflation 4% = 925k profit
we then go to sell the house at 1.946 million, with a profit of 1.346 million
however, half of this profit is due to cgt (1 out of 2 bedrooms?) = 673k profit
this is added to the profit from renting of 925k = total of 1.598 million profit
Scenario 2 is more profitable but not by a huge amount.
i understand this may be based on incorrect assumptions.
1. You are unlikely to rent out a room for the entirety of the ownership
2. Does renting 1 out of 2 bedrooms mean half the house was only used as a home? What if 1 out of 2 bedrooms is rented but the other bedroom holds 2 people, eg a couple, is it still 50% of the house not used as a home? Or 33%?
3. I have not done the maths on how this would work with renting multiple rooms etc - does anyone know how this would work out mathematically