When getting an ex-gratia redundancy payment, I see that the tax-free portion is reduced by the NPV of a future pension payment. I understand NPV. What I don't understand is the assumptions that are made. Is my final salary (in 30 years time) assumed to be some multiple of my present salary? What is the assumption of the pension fund growth? Is inflation assumed? Are these 'agreed' assumptions with Revenue, or are they at the discretion of the pension fund managers? Thanks.