I am 1 of approx 80 employees who will be made redundant in Sep this year. There have been months of negotiations between the company & union/reps of nonunionised workers culminating in a Labour Court determination. This determination was for payment of 8 weeks inclusive for every year worked capped at 2.75 years salary.
My question is in relation to, what is viewed as a weeks wages. I am well aware that the company only has a statutory obligation & anything after that is at their discretion. However, surely within this, it must be deemed to be fair & equitable.
The company are now saying a weeks wages will be what is on an employees P60, as opposed to actual earnings. I am not very good with taxation issues, but I believe, the figure shown on ones P60 is the figure after paying into pension, avc's, salary foregoing for share purchase in Company & bonus also going into share purchase.
If this is the case 2 employees earning exactly the same amount, with the exact same amount of service, will receive quite different redundancy payments, if one choose to avail of salary foregoing & put bonus into share purchase scheme. I always believed a redundancy amount was calculated on ones earnings as opposed to amount on P60.
We are now seeking clarification from the Labour Court.
I would welcome any opinions ?
My question is in relation to, what is viewed as a weeks wages. I am well aware that the company only has a statutory obligation & anything after that is at their discretion. However, surely within this, it must be deemed to be fair & equitable.
The company are now saying a weeks wages will be what is on an employees P60, as opposed to actual earnings. I am not very good with taxation issues, but I believe, the figure shown on ones P60 is the figure after paying into pension, avc's, salary foregoing for share purchase in Company & bonus also going into share purchase.
If this is the case 2 employees earning exactly the same amount, with the exact same amount of service, will receive quite different redundancy payments, if one choose to avail of salary foregoing & put bonus into share purchase scheme. I always believed a redundancy amount was calculated on ones earnings as opposed to amount on P60.
We are now seeking clarification from the Labour Court.
I would welcome any opinions ?