I am finishing my job at the end of this month. When I started this employment in 2003 it was full time. In 2005 the business was sold on to new employers and I formed part of the transfer...this meant that the original owner did not have to pay me redudancy...it was a smooth transfer. The new employer came in in 2005. For the past year I have been on 2 days a week and now finally leaving on 31st. December.
I am getting redudancy for the period from when the new employer took over. Is this correct? I have been told that there is an obligation on the present employer to pay me since 2005. However, this is not happening. Just wondering. I would not pursue it for various reasons, but I would like to know.
Thanks .