Question:
If an employee is given verbal notice only of impending redundancy surely this is insufficient and should not the employee receive a written termination notice and the notice period begins from the date of said letter?
After all, you cannot prove what is said in a verbal notice situation.
If an employee is given verbal notice only of impending redundancy surely this is insufficient and should not the employee receive a written termination notice and the notice period begins from the date of said letter?
After all, you cannot prove what is said in a verbal notice situation.