Brief Overview
We applied for a mortgage at the end of 2006, we gave the bank all of our details which stipulated that all of the money we earned was in pounds sterling. The bank converted our earnings at that time to euro's and gave us a mortgage to which we agreed and signed the contract. Since 2006 our family has increased in size and we need to move but obviously the market has collapsed.
Now we are not financial experts and relied on the bank to carry out all necessary due diligence and risk analysis etc. I requested from the bank all of the information regarding our mortgage etc. I received what I believe is most of the data except for the risk analysis. I emailed the bank and was advised by them that they did not consider the currency exchange as part of their risk analysis to which I was surprised as our earnings and therefore payment capability is all in sterling. I responded to the bank for clarification on what they did their risk analysis on if they did not consider our salaries, I have got no reply and have yet to actually receive the risk analysis itself even after several requests.
My question to those out there that would know better than me - can the bank be held responsible for reckless lending?
Also, I know it's a two way street, we agreed and signed the contract etc, we have met all payments and are not in any arrears but we do need to move.
Any information provided would be welcome.
Thanks
We applied for a mortgage at the end of 2006, we gave the bank all of our details which stipulated that all of the money we earned was in pounds sterling. The bank converted our earnings at that time to euro's and gave us a mortgage to which we agreed and signed the contract. Since 2006 our family has increased in size and we need to move but obviously the market has collapsed.
Now we are not financial experts and relied on the bank to carry out all necessary due diligence and risk analysis etc. I requested from the bank all of the information regarding our mortgage etc. I received what I believe is most of the data except for the risk analysis. I emailed the bank and was advised by them that they did not consider the currency exchange as part of their risk analysis to which I was surprised as our earnings and therefore payment capability is all in sterling. I responded to the bank for clarification on what they did their risk analysis on if they did not consider our salaries, I have got no reply and have yet to actually receive the risk analysis itself even after several requests.
My question to those out there that would know better than me - can the bank be held responsible for reckless lending?
Also, I know it's a two way street, we agreed and signed the contract etc, we have met all payments and are not in any arrears but we do need to move.
Any information provided would be welcome.
Thanks