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Still though - we've been coming from a lower base for a long time - and they had the same boom we had.
LIke - what were they producing a few years ago?
It must have been in the millions per year in that case for them to catch up to only require 125,000 these days and still have low appreciation.
If this is true - and i assume it has to be somewhat true given the amount of times i've read it - how come thereisn't ridiculous apprecitation over there given the population?
I also assume the uk has plenty of immigration.
Obviously there are other factors which result in general, only low to mid-single digit appreciation these days.
WHat are the other factors which override the above statistic ?
Taking the above statistics alone one would expect massive appreciation in the uk.
Fair enough - but if the 80,000 odd is such a huge oversupply how come there isn't massive depreciation ? That isn't happening at all.
The bottom line is both nations produce a similar no. of units per year - both are looking at similar low to mid single digit apprecitaion - and both have completely populations !!
I can't figure it out.
Qwertuiop, I am confused as to why you can't figure it out unless you don't know how markets work. It remains to be seen the full effects on the Irisk market, but evidence of large depreciation (up to a third) has happened at the top of the market.
Unlike selling, it's tax-free - so you'll pretty much get all the cash and still retain teh appreciating asset.
And even if property prices only rise with inflation (which may be a bit of an ask for the next year or so) they should be worth 20-25% more in 5 years time anyway.
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