Thanks for the advice ecstatic.
By the way the current rate of VAT in Poland when purchasing a new property is 7%. By new they mean upto 5 years old. In January 2008 there will be a change in the Polish regulations and the rate of VAT will increase from 7% to 22%, in line with Poland’s negotiations with the EU.
Does this simply mean that for someone who invests before Jan 2008 their Polish property will increase by 15% overnight?? Even so, this 15% is tax afterall, which an investor will never get anyway, if/when he/she decides to sell their property...
Moreover to sell under the new VAT rate of 25% an investor will have to sell their property while it is still new (i.e. under 5 years old) and this means he/she will get hit with CBT in Poland to the tune of 10% of the selling price. I guess its a catch 22 situation
Err, your logic is completely skewed.
I don't know the first thing about Polish tax laws but if you have to charge VAT at 22% (or is it 25%??) on your property when you sell it but only 7% when you buy then you will make a LOSS of 15% overnight. Properties under 5 years of age will make up a very small proportion of the total housing stock. House prices overall will not increase in price therefore when this new VAT rate is introduced, you will simply have to return a greater proportion of your sale as tax to the govt.
However what you're saying about the Polish tax situation is somewhat muddled and doesn't make a hell of a lot of sense to me. It sounds like you've got your facts wrong, or have possibly been spun a line.
I agree that new properties under 5 years of age will make up only a very small proportion of the total Polish housing stock and therefore only a very small proportion of properties will increase in price in accordance with the VAT increase (from 7% to 22% (not 25% sorry - typo)). But am i right in saying that the purchaser, not the seller, is responsible for paying the VAT? please correct me if i am wrong
Poland is in a property boom that has already started but has a long way to go. The maths are simple - Poland has a GNI per capita of $5,280 compared to $25,270 in Germany (Source: World Bank) - it's a disparity far too great to maintain. The proof can already be seen in GDP growth. In 2004 this was 4% in Poland compared to 0% (yes zero) in Germany (Source: World Bank).
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