I am all set to buy a house when my solicitor spots a problem; The original farmer who owned the land got PP for a dwelling subject to conditions, one being that he, or his immediate family, be the first occupiers of that house. A year later he sold that site to another unrelated guy who applied for PP for a different house on the same site. It was granted subject to the original conditions. Nothing was ever taken out about the residency clause. Now 4 years later he's selling the house to me. Does this sound dodgey or was it a mistake by the planning office to grant PP to the current owner because they didn't pick up on the original residency clause and therefore they should not have granted the permission?
Regards,
lauraG
Regards,
lauraG