I would have imagined that the person collecting the rent would be acting as an agent for the beneficial owner of the property. The agent may be responsible for deducting/remitting taxes but it is the owner who is ultimately liable for them? I may be completely wrong and am not a tax expert!The advice I got from a tax consultant is that it's whoever's name is on the lease/rental agreement is the person who pays tax on the rental income.
I changed our lease into my wife's name when we changed tenants last year to enable us to pay less tax on the rental income.
Also, if you are jointly assessed for tax purposes (and that is generally the most beneficial option) then it is not likely to make a major difference which of you declare the income as you would currently be using any excess credits or lower tax rate cut off your wife is not using.
I'm confused. Can you clarify precisely what is not true in the comments above please?Individualisation means that this statement is not true.
Individualisation means that this statement is not true.
Generally, where one spouse has a low income, it is best to put any additional income into that spouse's name to maximise the 20% band. In this case, could the property be put into the wife's sole name?
Not if the married couple opt for assessment as two separate individuals. Only if they opt for joint or aggregated assessment. I still don't know when/why a couple would plump for the first option though!at the end of the day income will be assessed jointly
This is correct.As far as I know as a landlord you can't charge for your own time working on the property (painting renovating etc)
I'm confused. Can you clarify precisely what is not true in the comments above please?
Marg, if we were to take an investment property that is owned jointly by a married couple, Where one partner's marginal tax rate is the higher rate (41%) and the spouse's marginal rate is 20%.
Can the rental income from an investment property not be assessed as income to the spouse only? This should reduce the tax due in total for the couple
Don
I wanted to do this and decided to take advice to be certain. My advice came from the senior tax partner from one of the big firms (my uncle). He checked it out for me, and came back to say I couldn't do it.
In order for the income to be put in her name, i would have to transfer the house and the mortgage into her name, and then it might be possible (the rev could claim I was avoiding tax, but unlikely as it no different from shifting any asset class into a spouse name)
Maybe the rev have relaxed this since 4 years ago, I doubt it somehow. At the end of the day, it will only be tested in the event of a tax audit, and if your adviser is wrong, the revenue will want their money.
I'd be delighted to be proven wrong on this one, so any tax advisers out there that can shed any further light on this ?
Niall
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