I have been working for the same employer for the last 2 years, without a break. The yearly figure on my P60 attributes the majority of earnings (and tax deduction) to 'previous employer' and a much smaller amount to 'this employment'.
Before I quiz my employer about this, I would like to know if there is any logical/honest explanation for this?
Your employer may have changed employer registration numbers during the year, in which case he would have ended one payroll and started another. If you don't want to approach him you could contact Revenue who will confirm your employments that are on record for last year.
It might be a previous year's P60 - if you started in August 2006 with your new employer, then the larger amount would be attributable to your old employer for the 2006 tax year, presumably. I doubt if there's anything dishonest going on - can't imagine anyone who would benefit from it. Best call Revenue on Monday and have your termination/start dates handy to give them.
Any amounts shown under previous employer would only be in the tax year covered by the p60, so a 2007 p60 would only show any previous employments from 01/01/07 on. If you have veen in continuous employment with the same employer since before 01/01/07 then Advisor's post above is probably the most likely explanation.