Thanks PM1234. I am not from legal background so I will try to explain what I have understood and what I would like to know.
There are three owners, three solicitors and three lenders involved. Let me name it as O1, O2 and O3. O3 would be me. The solicitors will be S1, S2 and S3. S3 would be my solicitor. The lenders will be L1, L2 and L3. L3 is the bank from whom I am taking mortgage from.
From your post I understood there are two documents involved: Title Deeds (TD) and Vacated Mortage Deed (VMD).
Let me put the sequence below:
1. S1 must have studied TD and having found it 'Good' it recommended L1 to lend money to O1. Now when O1 got the key of the house, S1 sent Title Deeds to L1. Now L1 has Title Deeds.
2. Now O1 wanted to sell the house. S1 then requested L1 to send Vacated Mortage Deed (VMD). S2 requested Title Deeds from L1. Having studied it and found it 'Good' S2 recommended L2 that it can lend money to O2. Now O2 got the keys, S2 sent Title Deeds to L2. Now L2 has Title Deeds.
S1 should have passed VMD to S2 but he never did. O2 got the house without S1 sending VMD to S2.
3. Now O2 wanted to sell the house. This point, S2 should request L2 to send VMD and also get VMD from S1. S3 (my solicitor) requested Title Deeds from L2. He found it ok and recommended L3 (my lender) to give me mortgage.
To close the deal S3 should have two VMDs one from S1 and another from S2.
There shouldn't be any problem of Title Deeds as without it S3 cannot recommend L3 to lend me the money. Am I correct?
If above assumption is correct I have following questions:
1. O2 could never have got the mortgage without S2 receiving Title Deeds from L1.
Am I correct?
2. My bank would never have granted me loan if my solicitor (s3) didn't have Title Deeds. Am I correct?
Now, if my above three questions are correct then is it so that to close the deal my solicitor (S3) should recieve two VMDs: one from S1 and another from S2? Is it correct?
Many thanks for your help so far.
Jack.