C
Cherrywood
Guest
Hi Folks,
Hope you could advise regarding solicitors fees (will try to keep this as short as possible)
Basically I received re-mortgage loan approval from my lender for a modest amount of under 40K.
My then solicitor then contacted me to arrange to sign docs, to get ball rolling. I arrived at the meeting having NOT received copy of loan terms from lender, I discovered that terms required that my credit union loan be paid from funds, which then meant that we had to return to financial advisor to arrange an extra 10K to cover the c/u being paid.
At second meeting with solicitor was informed that as myself and OH were not married, and the loan and deeds of house were in my name only - my OH was required to seek seperate solicitor, as it was assumed she would have a vested interest in the property. I explained that as the loan was for such a small amount, and the loan terms plus the terms and conditions from lender did not make any reference to this, was this absolutely necessary? The solicitor insisted they would NOT process this further unless my OH got their own solicitor.
I informed the solicitor then that I would not be availing of their services.
(by the way both meetings lasted approx 30 Mins)
I then contacted a new solicitor, and requested from my old solicitor the return of the deeds and my fees which I would pay in full, and was shocked to receive a bill for just under 1,000K.
I then rang the old solicitor and asked why I was charged so much, and was told that was their fee for work done, and they flatly denied that I informed them that I would Not be using them, and any issues were flatly rebuked.
What I would like to know is
1. Should I pay them to release title deeds back to lender? And if I do can I later take up a complaint either with the law society or small claims court or consumer affairs later?
2. Does my OH have to get her own solicitor?
3. As my lender did not furnish me with copy of terms, surely I should not be charged for the first particular meeting as it was a lenders error? ( Solicitor insists that its not their problem)
Apologies for the long windedness of this post, but I found it hard to summarise this particular problem.
Hope you could advise regarding solicitors fees (will try to keep this as short as possible)
Basically I received re-mortgage loan approval from my lender for a modest amount of under 40K.
My then solicitor then contacted me to arrange to sign docs, to get ball rolling. I arrived at the meeting having NOT received copy of loan terms from lender, I discovered that terms required that my credit union loan be paid from funds, which then meant that we had to return to financial advisor to arrange an extra 10K to cover the c/u being paid.
At second meeting with solicitor was informed that as myself and OH were not married, and the loan and deeds of house were in my name only - my OH was required to seek seperate solicitor, as it was assumed she would have a vested interest in the property. I explained that as the loan was for such a small amount, and the loan terms plus the terms and conditions from lender did not make any reference to this, was this absolutely necessary? The solicitor insisted they would NOT process this further unless my OH got their own solicitor.
I informed the solicitor then that I would not be availing of their services.
(by the way both meetings lasted approx 30 Mins)
I then contacted a new solicitor, and requested from my old solicitor the return of the deeds and my fees which I would pay in full, and was shocked to receive a bill for just under 1,000K.
I then rang the old solicitor and asked why I was charged so much, and was told that was their fee for work done, and they flatly denied that I informed them that I would Not be using them, and any issues were flatly rebuked.
What I would like to know is
1. Should I pay them to release title deeds back to lender? And if I do can I later take up a complaint either with the law society or small claims court or consumer affairs later?
2. Does my OH have to get her own solicitor?
3. As my lender did not furnish me with copy of terms, surely I should not be charged for the first particular meeting as it was a lenders error? ( Solicitor insists that its not their problem)
Apologies for the long windedness of this post, but I found it hard to summarise this particular problem.