My argument would be that the owned property was and always has been my own PPR but was not suitable as a house for a family, ie, too small, too isolated etc.
At end of day I suppose it may come down to the arguments put up by Local Authority as to why an owner should pay this tax and how those arguments are countered by the owner. But I do think you're spot on when you say that if property is rented the owner's case is very weak.
Thanks again oldnick.
I think the best thing to do is ask the local authority for a ruling, and do your arguing now.
This will guard against arrears accruing.
I did this for a different reason (uninhabitable property) and have an email from the council saying it is not liable. I offered for them to come out and inspect but they said it wasn't necessary.
Ok on topic dereko -my question and I genuinely am baffled- is....
What actually determines whether one has two properties ?
If someone stays in a rented apt for 2/3 days a week is he/she still considered to have two properties,one of which (whether the owned property or the rented one) incurs the NPPR charge ? .
What determines (in the eyes of the law) whether a person has , for the purpose of NPPR charges , two or more residential properties ?
If someone who fully understands the relevent legislation -which I confess I don't - perhaps they could explain whether
1) Is it the act of living in two seperate places that determines NPPR charges
2) or is it actually owning two residential properties.
Hello
Regarding the NPPR tax, if you own a property and divide your time between that property and a rented property, are you expected to be able to PROVE that the owned property is your PPR?
What constitutes proof in this case? Would a bank statement for example constitute proof or would it have to be something stronger like a utility bill or your PPS Number address?
Or does it depend on whose name is on the direct debit for the rented property?
Or indeed the division of occupancy TIME between both properties?
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