So what sort of case study do they show to illustrate how it will work?
Is it someone in a home worth €200k with a mortgage of €300k and a much reduced income? No, it is not.
Is it someone with a home in negative equity and a reluctant investor who kept their previous home which is also in negative equity? No, it is not.
Here is the [broken link removed] (See PDF Page 19)
Mr A | Self employed
Commercial property - value| €637,000
Commercial loan|€1,450,000
Owes Revenue|€50,000
unsecured business creditors|€100,000
Value of home| Not given
mortgage on home| €12,000
He also has given a personal guarantee on on the (unquantified) debts of a company that went into liquidation in 2007.
Proposal
His home is left out of the calculations.
The commercial property is sold and the lender gets the proceeds
The Revenue gets paid in full
The unsecured creditors write off most of their debt.
What an incredibly stupid and unrepresentative example!
How come these creditors have not already got judgement mortgages registered on the family home?
Why would they agree to a PIA and leave him in his family home?
The home should be sold and paid to his creditors.