I am also in the same situation and am a bit confused - sorry for long-winded post - am a bit clueless.
My mortgage payment was €927/month (variable). After the first 0.5% interest rate drop, the repayment went to €880. I sent a letter to the bank requesting to fix my repayments at €1000. They wrote to me advising that they had reduced the original term from 30 to 24 years. Then the next interest rate drop of 0.5% came in so my repayments went to €957.
I called to my local branch and they checked with the mortgage department who advised that they cannot fix repayments - they will have to keep changing the term of the loan but that it can go back to the original term if required. The branch said that I could lodge the difference straight into the mortgage account so I put in the €43. The branch said that the interest rate was likely to go down again so in Jan after the 0.75% reduction came in, I should lodge the balance again and then if rate hasn't changed since then, I should write requesting new term.
My questions are as follows:
In reducing the term of my loan, is the interest payable any different or will my tax relief be affected? (I am a FTB)
Would I be better off leaving the term at 30 years and lodging the balance every month or couple of months so it will be taken straight off the capital?
Would the interest relief then be affected?
Does it make any difference what way I overpay?
Thanks for any advice
Tommygirl