buyingabroad
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Can someone confirm my understanding which is as follows please?
If a country's currency is currently overvalued, then if one is buying a property in that country, wouldn't he or she be better off borrowing in that currency to finance the purchase of a property there? That way, while the euro equiv of the property value decreases so does the mortgage and therefore currency risk would only be on the equity one has invested.
If a country's currency is currently overvalued, then if one is buying a property in that country, wouldn't he or she be better off borrowing in that currency to finance the purchase of a property there? That way, while the euro equiv of the property value decreases so does the mortgage and therefore currency risk would only be on the equity one has invested.