Duke of Marmalade
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A typical protect the criminal law. So criminal phones up and says "I dunnit". Garda jots it down. Before His Lordship Garda relays his notes, criminal says "he's a liar". Garda produces recording. What's wrong with that.of course you have to give your consent to a recording...why would it be any other way!?
A typical protect the criminal law. So criminal phones up and says "I dunnit". Garda jots it down. Before His Lordship Garda relays his notes, criminal says "he's a liar". Garda produces recording. What's wrong with that.
You seem to be making a big distinction between electronic recording and jotting down on paper. Why the distinction?
I know it's illegal, that's the ass. Record the conversation on paper, no problem. Record it on electronic media, that's illegal. Why? The criminal can deny the written record. Difficult for her to deny the electronic recorded message. The bottom line is that innocent folk don't give a damn about their conversations being recorded. For some totally bizarre reason we seem to want the criminal the "he's a liar" defence.The distinction is that it is specifically illegal to record a telephone conversation without the other persons knowledge.
This is incorrect. It is entirely legal to record a conversation that one is part of, even unbeknown to others. That is a side issue anyway.The distinction is that it is specifically illegal to record a telephone conversation without the other persons knowledge.
The question is whether it is credible that a Minister that never misses a trick only found out yesterday about the practice of recordings despite such information being the subject of a letter sent by the Garda Commissioner to the Minister's office two weeks ago and despite such information be contained in a GSOC report to the Minister last summer.
Perhaps so. And if so, methinks that such is a wafer-thin defence.I think that is a misunderstanding of what is being claimed here. The Minister clearly knew about the recordings last year. What is being claimed here (as far as I understand it) is that he only found out on Monday about the fact that one of the recordings puts the legality of a case in jeopardy.
I think that is a misunderstanding of what is being claimed here. The Minister clearly knew about the recordings last year. What is being claimed here (as far as I understand it) is that he only found out on Monday about the fact that one of the recordings puts the legality of a case in jeopardy. His office was made aware of this 2 weeks ago but as the Minister was abroad until Monday he was not made aware of this in detail until then. At least that is my understanding of it based on the explanation given by the wily old fox that is Michael Noonan last night!
I'm no fan of Shatter and completely agree with Sunny but I do think there is a lot of misrepresentation of the facts here and to hear the likes of Mick Wallace bang on about what is and is not legal on RTE News just grates ever so slightly.
Actually the letter was sent to Shatter five days BEFORE he left the country. If anyone is misrepresenting facts, its Michael Noonan!
But taking a helicopter view and hearing all those folk from Martin to Wallace to Ross to Boyd Carpenter talk as if the most wicked perfidy since Stalin had been enacted it all seemed such a storm in a teacup. The test for me is Labour - they are relatively unscathed and if the level of wickedness was even half of that portrayed they would surely have to resign.
I simply don't get it. If I phone the Gardaí I would expect that s/he would at least jot down a note of what I had to say, i.e. s/he would "record" it. The fact that this recording is done by technology is surely a good thing.
I appreciate that, though michaelm seems to have a different take. I am not querying the legal position, I am asking what is the difference in substance? And the answer is obvious. I can deny the contents of a written record where I can't deny the contents of a digital record. Now just who is the right of deniability protecting?The fact that the recording is done by technology, without the explicit consent of either party is what makes it illegal.
I appreciate that, though michaelm seems to have a different take. I am not querying the legal position, I am asking what is the difference in substance? And the answer is obvious. I can deny the contents of a written record where I can't deny the contents of a digital record. Now just who is the right of deniability protecting?
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