To qualify for the relief the entirety of the purchase monies, including any borrowings, must be provided by the first time buyer. Any person, who provides part of the purchase monies or who is a party to any borrowings relating to such purchase, is also regarded as a buyer of the house and the relief will not be available unless that other person is also a first time buyer.
Thank you. I called the stamp duty office and they confirmed that if I'm the only person in the deeds and in the mortage, then I qualify as first-time buyer.
This contrast with the "advice" given by the mortage broker and the bank, which insisted I could and I should add my wife to the application, as long as she's not in the deeds. While I understand banks have their own agenda, I was hoping the broker would be more helpful / competent.
Thank you.
In my experience banks insist on both parties going on a mortgage for the family home. I presume this is due to the Family Home Protection Act.
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I would have thought so too. My understanding is that any property you buy while married, your spouse automatically has a claim on it.
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