P
Pazhayari
Guest
Hi,
I tried searching thru the forums on this topic, but I couldn't get a clear picture, hence this post.
I got married recently. Before getting married, both herself and I owned a property each individually. We had bought houses before we met. Before marriage we lived between the two houses - my house is my PPR and her house is her PPR. Her's is closer to her work and family and she can't drive, while mine convenient for my work. Ideally we would like to continue this as this suits our needs.
After getting married, I spoke to revenue, and they insisted we should pick one of the two houses as PPR - and change everything about the other house (mortgage clause on both houses says it should PPR, she has a house-mate under rent-a-room) etc. This seems to be the case even if we opt to not to be taxed as a couple!
I guess my question really is what happens if a married couple decides to live in two difference places/houses, for whatever reason? Should where ever a person live most of the year considered their PRR despite their marital status? I understand this is an unusual situation, but I can think of a number of reasons why some may have to do this in this market (work transfer to a different town, negative equity preventing sale etc).
Thanks a million in advance for your time and comments!
PS: Just editing to say that I've read the following threads on the couple's in similar (well, somewhat) situation, and general consensus seems to be 'tough tities'!
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=30798
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=21701
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=17040
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=10951
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=70057
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=52671
I tried searching thru the forums on this topic, but I couldn't get a clear picture, hence this post.
I got married recently. Before getting married, both herself and I owned a property each individually. We had bought houses before we met. Before marriage we lived between the two houses - my house is my PPR and her house is her PPR. Her's is closer to her work and family and she can't drive, while mine convenient for my work. Ideally we would like to continue this as this suits our needs.
After getting married, I spoke to revenue, and they insisted we should pick one of the two houses as PPR - and change everything about the other house (mortgage clause on both houses says it should PPR, she has a house-mate under rent-a-room) etc. This seems to be the case even if we opt to not to be taxed as a couple!
I guess my question really is what happens if a married couple decides to live in two difference places/houses, for whatever reason? Should where ever a person live most of the year considered their PRR despite their marital status? I understand this is an unusual situation, but I can think of a number of reasons why some may have to do this in this market (work transfer to a different town, negative equity preventing sale etc).
Thanks a million in advance for your time and comments!
PS: Just editing to say that I've read the following threads on the couple's in similar (well, somewhat) situation, and general consensus seems to be 'tough tities'!
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=30798
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=21701
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=17040
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=10951
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=70057
http://www.askaboutmoney.com/showthread.php?t=52671