K
ktb
Guest
Hi, I bought a house as a first time buyer/ owner occupier last year. Unfortunately I had to return home for a year due to personal circumstances and I rented my house for 12 months. It is my one and only residence and I am now living back in it. I hear that if you let your house anytime within 5 years of buying it you are liable to pay the "investor" rate of stamp duty instead! This is ridiculous! how about people who buy a house and then go travelling for a few months and let it out, or couple's who split up and need to rent it out.. The government is supposed to be aiding first time buyers in buying their first homes, but if they leave it for any portion of time (i.e. travelling) they get kicked into the investor bracket! It would be different if a person bought 10 houses and put them in all their children's name to avail of the lower rate!
Could someone please tell me if I am correct and if the revenue have any exceptions to the rule?
Thanks
Could someone please tell me if I am correct and if the revenue have any exceptions to the rule?
Thanks