P
phyllisstein
Guest
My company have a stated policy of not providing holiday leave (or payment in lieu of holiday leave entitlement) while an employee is on long-term sick leave. However, in 2009 the European Court of Justice clarified it as follows;
"With regard to a worker who has not been able, for reasons beyond his control, to exercise his right to paid annual leave before termination of the employment relationship, the allowance in lieu to which he is entitled must be calculated so that the worker is put in a position comparable to that he would have been in had he exercised that right during his employment relationship.”
This clearly points out that an employee is entitled to such leave (or renumeration in lieu of their statutory leave).
However, my employer is maintaining that they have no such obligation. Does anyone have any experience of this scenario?
"With regard to a worker who has not been able, for reasons beyond his control, to exercise his right to paid annual leave before termination of the employment relationship, the allowance in lieu to which he is entitled must be calculated so that the worker is put in a position comparable to that he would have been in had he exercised that right during his employment relationship.”
This clearly points out that an employee is entitled to such leave (or renumeration in lieu of their statutory leave).
However, my employer is maintaining that they have no such obligation. Does anyone have any experience of this scenario?