C
Corleone
Guest
Hi all,
Assessing the merits of property investment, I notice that people advocating that property is over-priced often make reference to that fact that there is a shortfall between the rent received and the mortage payment by the investor, and in effect, the investor is "subsidising" the tenant....I personally take the view that it's the other way around and that the tenant is this case is subsidizing the landlord...ie if the tenant was to only cover the interest payments, then isn't this representing an interest-free loan, as such, for the landlord to acquire a property? Can't think of too many ways to obtain a 25 year interest free loan? Any views?
C.
PS: sorry if this is a little heavy for a "hazy sunny afternoooon..!"
Assessing the merits of property investment, I notice that people advocating that property is over-priced often make reference to that fact that there is a shortfall between the rent received and the mortage payment by the investor, and in effect, the investor is "subsidising" the tenant....I personally take the view that it's the other way around and that the tenant is this case is subsidizing the landlord...ie if the tenant was to only cover the interest payments, then isn't this representing an interest-free loan, as such, for the landlord to acquire a property? Can't think of too many ways to obtain a 25 year interest free loan? Any views?
C.
PS: sorry if this is a little heavy for a "hazy sunny afternoooon..!"