I hope it is ok to post this as a new thread:
Grateful for any answers to this scenario: Paddy has a property (not his primary residence) which he is renting out and on which his bank mortgage is up to date. The house is in positive equity of about €20,000. If Paddy has a judgment mortgage registered against the property by a creditor, can the creditor force sale of the house, given the bank has the primary mortgage on the house.
Just to clarify, there is no problem with the bank mortgage. It is up to date. The problem is with a non-bank creditor who has registered a judgment mortgage for €50,000 on the property. So can the creditor force a sale to recoup €20,000 (the positive equity) of what he is owed? Thanks again.
Grateful for any answers to this scenario: Paddy has a property (not his primary residence) which he is renting out and on which his bank mortgage is up to date. The house is in positive equity of about €20,000. If Paddy has a judgment mortgage registered against the property by a creditor, can the creditor force sale of the house, given the bank has the primary mortgage on the house.
Just to clarify, there is no problem with the bank mortgage. It is up to date. The problem is with a non-bank creditor who has registered a judgment mortgage for €50,000 on the property. So can the creditor force a sale to recoup €20,000 (the positive equity) of what he is owed? Thanks again.