I'm almost certain that the 2.8% rate did not exist three months ago.Sorry, not the 2.55% rate, but a rate of 2.8% was available at the time the mortgage was applied for and drawn down. There are a few different threads where @Nowronganswer has asked about it, but they need to raise it with the bank & broker.
I'll make a donation to a charity of your choice if I'm wrong!I'm almost certain that the 2.8% rate did not exist three months ago.
Do you have details of the rate changes on 29th July last year to hand? @Nowronganswer should have qualified for the 'High Value' rate, which I thought was 2.8%? Unfortunately the press release only has the reductions, not the actual rates.From my notes I think the 2.8% rate only arrived in mid- to late-January
Apologies, you are absolutely correct, and it was only when I checked the timeline again I realised I was wrong when the poster brought this up in March - it looks like I had commented without asking about drawdown date.From my notes I think the 2.8% rate only arrived in mid- to late-January, so we would need to know exactly when @Nowronganswer drew down the mortgage to know if somebody missed something.
Hi @RedOnion , do you know how to work out the percentage rate when factoring in the cashback. So mine is 2.95% fixed for 3 years, 2% cashback on 285k.Apologies, you are absolutely correct, and it was only when I checked the timeline again I realised I was wrong when the poster brought this up in March - it looks like I had commented without asking about drawdown date.
@Nowronganswer the High Value rate for LTVs > 80% only came into being on 23rd January 2021. I understand now that you drew down before then. The rate you were offered was the best rate that was available from PTSB at that time for your cirumstances. I'm sorry for misguiding you on your previous post on this.
Your existing rate (2.95%) equals the best rate they make available for existing customers, so there is no benefit to you breaking & refixing, unless you are able to switch to another lender. However, this won't be possible until 12 months after your first drawdown.
A very crude way is to say you're getting that 2% over 3 years. So 2%/3 = 0.66%Hi @RedOnion , do you know how to work out the percentage rate when factoring in the cashback. So mine is 2.95% fixed for 3 years, 2% cashback on 285k.
How do i work out the rate when the 2% is factored in(assuming i use the 2% to help repay).
Thanks.
I'd be interested in the answer to this too.Hi, will there be an opportunity to renegotiate fix term mortgage with KBC if B of I take it over?
I'd be interested in the answer to this too.
How would BOI estimate their cost of funds at the time of draw down if they didn't own the loan at that time?
That's a really useful way of considering it @RedOnion.A very crude way is to say you're getting that 2% over 3 years. So 2%/3 = 0.66%
And take that off your interest rate 2.95 - 0.66 = 2.29%
It's not technically accurate, but close enough.
If you switch after 2 years, then your effective rate with PTSB is only 1.95% (assuming no break fee!).
The PTSB one is further complicated if you are also getting 2% of every repayment back also. I worked it out somewhere last week for someone.
Assumably though, the cost of funds would have to be factored in to the cost price of the loans BOI pays. Otherwise the break fees are free money for BOI.Surely it's all going to be matter of fact. The information on the original cost of funds will be transferred to BOI.
The loan originator had a cost of funds X on origination date. The cost of funds faced by the new owner are Y today. As would be the case of the loan book wasn't sold, X remains fixed Y varies day to day.
Assumably though, the cost of funds would have to be factored in to the cost price of the loans BOI pays. Otherwise the break fees are free money for BOI.
Example: Say the break fee today for an arbitrary fixed rate mortgage with a balance of 100K is 2000 euro. If this is purchased by BOI for 100K, then surely BOIs cost of funds is whatever it is costing them today to fund that purchase, and not what it cost KBC.
I know that loans are sold in batches and not individually like in this example, but the principal remains the same. What if BOI pays more or less for these fixed rate mortgages that it has cost KBC to fund them? Break fees are intended to be compensation for the banks' costs and not penalties for the customer.
Do the banks really want to get caught up in another scandal like that.it wouldn't take much for a bank to magic up some intragroup transfers to ensure break fees were restrictively large.
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