I appreciate there have been threads about this type of thing before, but I have a specific property I need to get response on.
Cost 190k for 2 bed townhouse (plus stamp etc)
monthly income 700 pm (near 2 local factories, and hospital, very easy to rent out apparently, but I personally fear high turnover of tenants)
we can put up 30k to cover initial costs, stamp and dep. (from SSIA and some other monies we don't need right now)
We want a long term investment (20 years or so).
We could get a mortgage for the bal no prob, as we have huge equity in Dublin home, but are wondering if this is way to go?
Is there a formula I could use? I do recall seeing one on AAB before, but cannot seem to find it.
Really appreciate any views.............
the leveraged return of circa 18-20% pa gross on deposit based on mortgage amounts is probably a key one?What in hell appeals about a residental property offering a gross yield of 3.75%
the leveraged return of circa 18-20% pa gross on deposit based on mortgage amounts is probably a key one?
Hi Kiki,
AFAIK the formula for yield is:- annual rental divided by cost of property, multiplied by 100.
Should that not be annual rent divided by current value of property, multiplied by 100.
Otherwise a house bought in 1978 for 3k could be making a yield of 40-50%!!!!
based on my figures above you need no capital appreciation to stand still?You need 12% increase just to stand still.
160k at 3.75% interest only is 6k
10 months at 700pcm equals 7k
assume property does not appreciate return on deposit is 3.33% gross
at 1% appreciation 9.6% gross
at 2% 16%
at 3% 22% return gross on returns less than inflation.
based on my figures above you need no capital appreciation to stand still?
So you do need capital appreciation to stand still, without even including stamp or fees (12% is a miscalculation by Fat as it seems to assume a stamp duty rate of 9% when it should be 3??)
By 'cost of property' I meant all costs associated with its purchase. Sorry, should have made it clearer.
The only reason I can see that you'd do the math on current property price is to ascertain whether, if you cashed in, your money would make more elsewhere.
Yep, that's why I'd think it'd make more sense to use the current value. Otherwise it's impossible to use yield to weigh up the risk/reward of the investment.
Going back to my 1978 €3k house, assuming mortgage is all paid up and no capital appreciation, you could end up comparing rental income of 1000p.m. as 33% yield versus simply sticking the proceeds of selling the house in a deposit account and getting €500 per month in interest at 3.3%.
Actual income from deposit account is 50% of income from house, but interest rate is only 10% of yield if calculated against original purchase price. If you calculate yield against current value e.g. €200k, yield would be 6%.
Anyway, that's only my understanding of it, I'm willing to defer to the more knowledgable and experienced. By the way, figures used above aren't necessarily accurate.
I have to admit that I don't really understand your logic.
If I had a property, purchased at 3K with rent of 1K per month, I'd imagine it's all reward and no risk! Perhaps you could clarify a bit more?
Damn, I've just copped my mistake in previous post. €1000 per month on an orginal price of €3k is a yield of ((1000 * 12) / 3000 ) * 100 = 400% not 33% as I said. Have edited previous post now.
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