Hi
Can someone please point out if they see any flaw in the following ?
I have an investment property for which I have a mortgage of 135,000 euro. I have rented this out and the property is basically paying for itself. It is now worth about 240,000 euro.
I am thinking of increasing the mortgage to 165,000 to pay for some home improvements to my main residence. I am considering getting an interest only mortgage over 25 years. The rent received will be about 400 euro greater than the monthly interest, so I will have an extra 400 euro in my pocket (which will come in very handy at the moment). Then in 25 years time, I will sell the property to one of my daughters for 165,000 euro. So at that stage, I will pay off the principal amount, and my daughter will have a property of her own with a mortgage of a mere 165,000 euro.
This seems to me to be a win-win situation for both myself and my daughter.
Am I missing anything in my reasoning ?
All comments appreciated.
Kevin
Can someone please point out if they see any flaw in the following ?
I have an investment property for which I have a mortgage of 135,000 euro. I have rented this out and the property is basically paying for itself. It is now worth about 240,000 euro.
I am thinking of increasing the mortgage to 165,000 to pay for some home improvements to my main residence. I am considering getting an interest only mortgage over 25 years. The rent received will be about 400 euro greater than the monthly interest, so I will have an extra 400 euro in my pocket (which will come in very handy at the moment). Then in 25 years time, I will sell the property to one of my daughters for 165,000 euro. So at that stage, I will pay off the principal amount, and my daughter will have a property of her own with a mortgage of a mere 165,000 euro.
This seems to me to be a win-win situation for both myself and my daughter.
Am I missing anything in my reasoning ?
All comments appreciated.
Kevin