steadstill
Registered User
- Messages
- 17
A semi-theoretical question here, If I was separated with no separation agreement, and since separation I purchased a house to live in. I know my wife would technically own half the house, but where would that be realized. E.g. would I have to make some sort of a payment / is it conceivable I could be thrown out of the house / I heard it would probably take effect if I ever went to sell the house?