We sold our family home, some months ago, with permission from the IBRC. Many months were spent liasing with them, to secure a mutual agreement, that we could service the shortfall on a monthly basis under the remaining term of the mortgage. Never missed a repayment on house and have begun monthly repayments on shortfall as agreed. We are happy to continue this agreement but wonder if there might be a better solution or wonder if we are exposed in our agreement. We have not received an agreement in writing despite being assured one would be issued on sale of our home and transferring of deeds to new owners etc. I am left feeling ill informed, frustrated, exposed, and unprotected here...
My questions are:
1. Are the IBRC legally obliged to furnish us with our agreement in writing post sale of house upon our request? If so, what would be the best way to illicit a response?
2. What paperwork is a bank obliged to provide us with post sale of a house when a shortfall situation exists?
3. We may be in a situation where our parents will gift us some money, which would amount to roughly half the amount of the shortfall. Should we offer this to IBRC a.s.a.p. in hope it will clear the shortfall or wait until our loan will be taken over to offer? Or should we retain it for purchasing our new home?
4. Would our loan be categorised as performing or non performing when it is unsecured? It is now being managed under shortfalls and arrears section in IBRC. Would this affect us either way?
5. Does having an unsecured loan affect a new mortgage application?
6. How will a new institution taking over our loan in a worst case scenario affect us?
7. Can we be forced into a new agreement i.e. IBRC asked us to complete an income assessment 'to see if we could afford more', but we refused under grounds that it is contradictory to the agreement that we made. We were not informed it would be subject to review or to any new terms and conditions, just that it was acceptable to them that we continue to service it over the remaining term of mortgage. Do they have any right to this information as long as we keep servicing loan as agreed?
Help is appreciated on any of these questions. This is totally unchartered territory for us and them, and I would appreciate you highlighting any other points that need consideration here, thatI haven't myself suggested.
My questions are:
1. Are the IBRC legally obliged to furnish us with our agreement in writing post sale of house upon our request? If so, what would be the best way to illicit a response?
2. What paperwork is a bank obliged to provide us with post sale of a house when a shortfall situation exists?
3. We may be in a situation where our parents will gift us some money, which would amount to roughly half the amount of the shortfall. Should we offer this to IBRC a.s.a.p. in hope it will clear the shortfall or wait until our loan will be taken over to offer? Or should we retain it for purchasing our new home?
4. Would our loan be categorised as performing or non performing when it is unsecured? It is now being managed under shortfalls and arrears section in IBRC. Would this affect us either way?
5. Does having an unsecured loan affect a new mortgage application?
6. How will a new institution taking over our loan in a worst case scenario affect us?
7. Can we be forced into a new agreement i.e. IBRC asked us to complete an income assessment 'to see if we could afford more', but we refused under grounds that it is contradictory to the agreement that we made. We were not informed it would be subject to review or to any new terms and conditions, just that it was acceptable to them that we continue to service it over the remaining term of mortgage. Do they have any right to this information as long as we keep servicing loan as agreed?
Help is appreciated on any of these questions. This is totally unchartered territory for us and them, and I would appreciate you highlighting any other points that need consideration here, thatI haven't myself suggested.
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