Hours Cut then made Redundant

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Hypothetical question here fortunately
If an employer cuts and employee hours and then subsequently makes then redundant, is the redundancy payment not based on the new lower wage? Does this not provide incentive for an employer to reduce and employee’s hours prior to redundancy? Or is there some in legislation to prevent this happening?

 

[Nige]

Hypothetical question here fortunately
If an employer cuts and employee hours and then subsequently makes then redundant, is the redundancy payment not based on the new lower wage? Does this not provide incentive for an employer to reduce and employee’s hours prior to redundancy? Or is there some in legislation to prevent this happening?

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nige thanks for that, my curiosity is now satisfied!