Is is not usual for the contract to buy to be subject to ability to secure financing? In which case the OP could just forfeit the deposit and walk away?
That part of the contract was deleted.
Is is not usual for the contract to buy to be subject to ability to secure financing? In which case the OP could just forfeit the deposit and walk away?
I personally think that specific performance is arguably not the best way for developers to proceed as usually people require mortgages to buy property. But in this climate it may be their only option or face being wound up by their creditors.
It is not usual. It is a matter for the purchaser as to how they fund their purchase. When I am acting for a vendor I have enough problems without taking on board the purchasers.
The harsh reality is that some people agreed to buy properties and are fully bound in , in a legally binding contract. They may have problems obtaining finance or they may quite simply have decided (in an acutely "blonde" moment) that actually they don't feel like completing.
Contracts are binding. People should not sign them if they do not intend to be bound.
And before anyone says, cor I can't believe their solicitor allowed them to .........can I remind everyone of the spirit of personal responsiblity which I think has been one of the great casualties of the Celtic Pup.
mf
I think MF missed the spirit of your post a bit as you seem to fully recognise your legal position but wanted to find out what happens in reality.
I agree with you but I think the OP realises this and as you say investments rise and fall and as this was an investment the best result for the OP would be not to complete the purchase from an investment point of view so you can't blame him for asking about the likelihood of being sued.
rather than the original question as to have developers actually sued yet for non-completion.
So for the sake of argument, let's say I am the developer of this apartment. The market value of the apartment has now potentially fallen to somewhere between 345,600 and 400,000 ( difficult to gauge). But I have a binding contract with an individual who has multiple buy to let properties. If I pursue this individual I will either force him to complete at the original 500,000 plus price, or I will get a judgement against him for my costs, plus any damages I incur, including loss in the market value on the resale at a lower cost. And I know I can enforce that because I can get a judgement against him and worst case register it against his other properties and go for a well charging order forcing the sale of those other properties until I get my money.
The alternative is that I simply forfeit the deposit and don't pursue the rest of the money.
Difficult choice?
Ok I'll play along. Of course I can't blame him for not wanting to lose money but that boat has long sailed. Lets put the shoe on the other foot. Lets pretends we are back in the good old times when house prices were rising. The developer realises the apartment is now worth €100,000 more than what he signed contracts with the investor 2 years previous. He now decides hold on i'll not complete the deal with this guy and I'll find someone else who will pay the current higher price. What would be the OPs reaction in this case?
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