It was November 2007 when I first noticed that the custom, of converting euro to sterling, of adding 50% to the sterling price (e.g. £20 = €20 + 10), was no longer valid.
I was in Debenhams Blackrock this week and, while queueing for the checkout, I picked up a jar of Jelly Belly brand jelly beans. The dual pricing showed £20/€31. On closer examination, some of the beans were starting to crystallise.
I asked the sales assistant if I could buy them at the sterling price, i.e charge me £20 sterling for them and I'd take the Mastercard conversion rate. She replied that she could not.
Debenhams have, I assume, already paid the supplier for this product. If they can make a profit on it at £20, then they, and other retailers, need to get clever if they want to shift unsold stock. In the present climate, retailers need cash and need to move old stock so they can buy in new stock. As it stands, that specific product will not be of 'saleable quality' if left on the shelf for much longer and will have to be binned.
The choice as I see it is either take the pay cuts to enable retailers down here to compete or lose the shops and the jobs
Does the Jonesboro market still exist?
One way for this argument about the difference in costs of doing business for retailers in the two jurisdictions to be solved is for the retailers who operate in both areas to publish their accounts so we can see exactly what sort of profit margin the retailers enjoy down South. Unfortunately I don't know any retailer that publishes a breakdown of their business in that way so we are all pretty much in the dark.
You obviously are unaware of the joys of transfer pricing, for example how some multinational manufacturers can report staggering levels of profit in countries with low corporation tax, while struggling to make a few bob in places where corporation tax is high.
Has nothing to do with tax levels if you simply look at gross profit margins
They probably won't make a profit down here by selling it at £20 i.e. €21.30
Maybe a few months ago when £20 equaled €25 the could have broke even or better selling at the UK price.
As Debenhams is a UK multiple, that item on a shelf in Co. Dublin cost them, I assume, an amount less than £20. If they receive £20 for the item, they make a profit.
But if for example, Debenhams Ireland are buying their stock from Debenhams UK, or Debenhams Asia, for that matter, who sets the prices?
In any case, focussing solely on gross profit margins makes no sense, if overhead costs vary between economies, as they invariably do.
Not exactly true. If they receive £20 for the item, they make a gross margin, or contribution. If their total contribution (net of VAT) is sufficient to cover overheads, they make a profit. Otherwise they make a loss.
I don't have time at the moment to do a major google search on transfer pricing practices but I think its commonly known that the Irish branches of some US-based multinationals can arrange their affairs in such a way as they make massive profits here, where they are taxed at 12.5%, while making smaller margins elsewhere where corporate taxes are higher.Ok I see what you mean and I don't work in retail so don't know how they operate but I do work for a foreign owned finanical institution and we have very set guidelines on transfer pricing and the concept of 'arms length'. Is it not the same in retail? I presume same laws apply
Didn't all this come to a head back in the late 80s/early 90s when we reached parity bewteen punt and pound, it took a while but shops eventually worked it out? I remember the joy of going into a book store and paying what was printed on the cover for a book.
I don't have time at the moment to do a major google search on transfer pricing practices but I think its commonly known that the Irish branches of some US-based multinationals can arrange their affairs in such a way as they make massive profits here, where they are taxed at 12.5%, while making smaller margins elsewhere where corporate taxes are higher.
I know that but I always thought it was mainly in the areas of patents, copyright sales etc. I just didn't think the retail sector would be able to get away with it to the same extent as it must be obvious to the tax authorities that if they are reporting a 30% profit margin in their low tax, higher cost Irish operations compared to a 10% profit margin in the the higher tax, lower cost UK, there must be something going on. I guess there are always ways around these things though.
I didn't mean to imply that UK retailers here are using transfer pricing to minimise their tax bills. In fact I don't really see this as an issue at all.
My point was more in relation to your suggestion that retailers' Irish and UK accounts be examined and compared in order to determine what exact profit margins they are making in either jurisdiction. I think that this would be a pointless exercise, because internal management accounting practices and policies will invariably distort such comparisons to the point of meaninglessness.
If you take a hypothetical company with a headquarters in London and a call centre in Plymouth, how do you determine how much the HQ & call centre costs are charged to their RoI entity, as opposed to their Scotland or Wales entities? If the Irish unit beats its sales target by 10%, the Scottish unit beats its target by 25% and the Welsh unit misses its target by 8%,or if the RoI unit is taking up 50% of management time in London or call-centre resources in Plymouth, but accounting for only 25% of total sales, how do you reflect these phenomena in the company's cost absorption policies? Even marginal changes in such policies can have profound effects on reported profitability.
My only point is that if you take someone like Tesco, they will break down their margins between the UK and their International operations so there must be some sort of useful comparison.
Is the title of this thread more signifitcant now, given Superquinn's decision to close it's shop in Dundalk?
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