MrD said:
Does that mean you only get repaid for the first year of marraige and not for any time after that?.
No - I meant that
Revenue normally (always?) leave the married couple on individual treatment until the year end at which point they review their affairs and refund any overpayment of tax.
Revenue should be notified when the marriage takes place (we did it several months later so it's not critical) and then the couple should contact them again at the end of the tax year with their
P60s etc. to get them to check for overpayment. Thereafter things should be automatically sorted out if the couple opt for joint/aggregated assessment. If they opt for individual assessment then they have to do the above at the end of each year. If they opt for separate treatment then, as far as
Revenue are concerned, they may as well not be married. Does that make
Myself and Mrs D got married Feb last year and haven't got around to notifying the revenue yet.
Shouldn't be a big deal. Just get onto them as soon as you can and explain the situation. Just email or write to them with your details. They will eventually need a copy of your marriage cert as proof. You can then balance your tax affairs since marriage (by submitting any relevant details including your
P60s for 2004) and then opt for the appropriate married taxation approach (most likely joint/aggregated).
Not quite sure what they mean by saying claims must be in before March 31, surely they wouldn't refuse a repayment for last year?
Perhaps the March 31st reference is an out of date reference to when the tax year started in April each year? I don't think that anybody would lose out by being tardy in informing
Revenue of the marriage or in getting their claims in for overpayment of tax while married but on individual treatment other than the normal 4 year (?) "statute of limitations" on backdated tax claims. But I could be wrong...
Does that make sense to you?