Well if/when the owner of a foreign property sells it and declares/pays the Irish taxes (e.g. CGT) due then that might be a hint to Revenue that the FTB status of the individual on their Irish property is dodgy. Of course they might attempt to cover this up by engaging in even more tax evasion by ignoring their Irish tax liabilities in this situation.
The issue of SD being unjust or whatever is a separate one altogether. As long as there are rules governing qualification for FTB benefits then these should be adhered to. Anybody who disagrees with them should lobby for change. Tax evasion is not an acceptable solution regardless of how unfair some people might think a particular tax is.
But, as ever, the Irish attitude of turning a blind eye to certain illegality while often at the same time moaning about other supposes rip-offs prevails in certain quarters...
Clubman - I understand and respect your position on this. However, I believe the whole system is appalling. We pay extortionately high taxes, most of which is squandered by the current government. In addition, following the rules is a hard pill to swallow when our own government bend them to suit themselves. Just look at the various tribunals. Furthermore, how fair is it that both parties are penalised when only one has actually bought a property before?
Whilst I agree with you re the stamp duty rules, this is patently untrue - our overall tax burden is certainly the lowest in the EU fifteen, if not in the whole EU. Whilst we may not have the quality of services as offered in the EU15, we at least don't have to pay for them!
Re: FTB Status when you have previously owned a property outside the Republic of Irel
Jaydee said:
Clubman - I understand and respect your position on this. However, I believe the whole system is appalling. We pay extortionately high taxes, most of which is squandered by the current government. In addition, following the rules is a hard pill to swallow when our own government bend them to suit themselves. Just look at the various tribunals. Furthermore, how fair is it that both parties are penalised when only one has actually bought a property before?