M
In every leaseback scheme I have seen, the VAT element is refunded in full to the purchaser - so how does this relate to the rental guarantee ?Meccano said:No ClubMan, not true in my experience.
The guarentee is not underwritten by money coming out of the developers own pocket (i.e. the profit on his sales) but rather from the government, by way of a refund on the 19.6% VAT which is levied on the building costs. So there is no necessity for the developer to have to add a premium to the price to cover the rental guarentee.
under the condition that the purchaser keeps the property for at least 15 year i think...euroDilbert said:In every leaseback scheme I have seen, the VAT element is refunded in full to the purchaser
The VAT is refunded to the purchaser. But not upfront and in cash! Its bled over the 10 -15 year lease back lifetime.euroDilbert said:In every leaseback scheme I have seen, the VAT element is refunded in full to the purchaser - so how does this relate to the rental guarantee ?
There may in fact be a premium added to the price to cover the rental guarantee, but I don't believe it has any connection with the VAT refund.
Meccano said:The VAT is refunded to the purchaser. But not upfront and in cash! Its bled over the 10 -15 year lease back lifetime.
If you've been looking at developers quoted rates of return - this point was probably not made explicitly clear in their figures.
DOH!
Do you seriously believe the French Government would allow you a 19.6% VAT refund upfront today, and let sell it at full market price tomorrow???
DREAM ON!!!!!!!
The following is an illustrationAskar said:Adj38,
How are these guaranteed yields attractive (most seem to be under 5%), if an interest only mortgage will be 4.75 (and likely to risk further in a years time - based on current consensus on ECB rates)? Surely my net yield will be negative, unless of course I was an ardent optimistic speculator who believes all property prices must rise above inflation for the duration of my investment horizon, and I was prepard to give a (significant?) notional value for capital appreciation in assessing my total return over this period. Based on the frothy nature of current french property prices (and economic commentary on it), the location of leaseback schemes and the fact that french property prices in the late 80s/90s barely kept up with inflation, I am struggling to see how these schemes represent relative value for a leveraged investor.
I specifically did not say what the capital appreciation would be and never would. Perhaps you can give me an example of an investment that is not speculative except bonds. in this regard it is speculative, but variables such as inerest rates and yield are controlled.Askar said:Adj,
Your figures don't stack up. I am still paying more than I am earning annually even with a 30% equity contribution and assuming you can get a 3.75% fixed rate mortgage. Incidentally, most of the 'guaranteed yields' are significantly lower for better located property (3.5-4%). You are still basing your model on capital appreciation over a 20 year period ( a very long time horizon), which is longterm speculation. It's disingenous to suggest that this is not a speculative punt which can only be justified on a notional concept of capital appreciation, and all the caveats raised in this thread and elswhere on the Site are particularly pertinent in this regard.
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